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My opponent had an item that if he successfully dispelled a spell he could do hits for each die I used on the spell. It also said that for bound spells it just did one hit. I was able to cast the spell from a miscast that let me cast my spell at it's casting cost without using any dice. Does he get any hits, since it isn't a bound spell and I didn't use any dice?
Generally, bound spells are clearly stated, and provided with an explicit power level ("Each bound spell item has a power level included in its description"- page 121).
On the Miscast table, it says "No casting roll is required for the spell"- Page 109, under 5-6. Just because it has the same description as a bound spell doesn't necessarily make it one.
That, to me, seems like casting with 0 dice. Seems like an isolated example though. Which army book is this?
Hope this helps.
Sounds like Malekith from the DE book. And I'd have to agree - no hits since you didn't roll dice and it's technically not a bound spell, either.
Is it a bound spell? nope.. Did you roll any dice to cast it? nope.. So he gets no extra dice to dispel it
(It was HIS miscast... why should he get any profit, however small? Mwahaha! )
Well technically it was my miscast that I gave to him with the Cup, but yeah, it wasn't a bound spell and I didn't roll any dice, so I didn't think I would need to take hits.